I am involved in the termination of a domestic partnership and am
trying to determine what is a fair division of the house settlement.
The house appraises out as approximately 155,000. I put $40,000 of my
own money down when we bought the house leaving a mortgage of $94,000.
I did not make house payments during the 3.5 yrs we have owned the
house. I don't
want to force sale of the house. What is fair for me to ask at the
sale of the house in 5 yrs...10 yrs?
Oops! Hit the wrong key.
Here's my follow-up:
Contributor A B
Cost 40 96 136
Realised, nett 150
Gain 14 shared 50:50
Receives 47 103 Out of which B repays Mortgage of whatever.
This seems fair to me but at the end of the day, it is what both
parties consider reasonable.
only $94,000 of the initial $136,000 was financed. i provided 40,000
of the 42,000 that went down on the house.
Here's a suggestion:
Let's say that the house will realise $150,000, after expenses,
against an initial investment of $134,000 - a profit of $16,000. Then
share this profit between you 50:50.
This same formula could be applied whenever the house is sold in 5, 10
or x years hence.
Of course, if one party (and not the other) should continue to live in
the house then this should be brought into the equation but I won't
offer a suggestion until you tell me what the future might hold.
Here's my follow-up:
Contributor A B
Cost 40 96 136
Realised
 Walking/Running Puppy - Advise needed
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house settlement in divorce